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15.2 Legendre Polynomials   527


                                        Then
                                                             1

                                                        A n
                                                   p n =       xP n (x)P n−1 (x)dx
                                                       A n−1  −1
                                                                   	  1                      	  1
                                                        A n  n + 1                       n       2
                                                     =                P n+1 (x)P n−1 (x)dx +    P n−1 (x)dx
                                                       A n−1 2n + 1  −1                2n + 1  −1
                                                              n
                                                        A n
                                                     =           p n−1 ,
                                                       A n−1 2n + 1
                                                1
                                        since   P n+1 (x)P n−1 (x)dx = 0. But we know A n from Corollary 15.2. Substitute this into the
                                             −1
                                        last expression to obtain
                                                         1 · 3 · 5···(2n − 3)(2n − 1)  (n − 1)!  n
                                                     p n =                                          p n−1
                                                                   n!          1 · 3 · 5···(2n − 3) 2n + 1
                                                         2n − 1
                                                       =       p n−1 .
                                                         2n + 1
                                        Now work forward:
                                                                 1    1  	  1        1  	  1   2
                                                                               2
                                                             p 1 =  p 0 =  P 0 (x) dx =   dx =
                                                                 3    3  −1          3  −1     3
                                                                 3    3 2   2
                                                             p 2 =  p 1 =  =
                                                                 5    5 3   5
                                                                 5    2
                                                             p 3 =  p 2 =
                                                                 7    7
                                                                 7    2
                                                             p 4 =  p 3 =
                                                                 9    9
                                        and so on. One can complete the proof by induction and obtain
                                                                              2
                                                                        p n =     .
                                                                            2n + 1
                                           With this result, we can write the Fourier-Legendre coefficient of f (x) as
                                                                      2n + 1  	  1
                                                                  c n =        f (x)P n (x)dx.
                                                                        2    −1
                                           Now here is an example of a Fourier-Legendre expansion.


                                 EXAMPLE 15.5
                                        We will write the Fourier-Legendre expansion of f (x) = cos(πx/2). Because cos(πx/2) is
                                        continuous with a continuous derivative,
                                                                                ∞

                                                                    cos(πx/2) =   c n P n (x)
                                                                               n=0
                                        for −1 < x < 1, where
                                                                    2n + 1  	  1
                                                                c n =       cos(πx/2)P n (x)dx.
                                                                      2   −1
                                        There is no simple expression for c n for arbitrary n, so we will approximate this eigenfunction
                                        expansion with the sum of the first six terms. We must therefore compute c 0 ,··· ,c 5 . Since we
                                        know P 0 (x) through P 5 (x), these integrations can be carried out explicitly.




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                                   October 14, 2010  15:20  THM/NEIL   Page-527        27410_15_ch15_p505-562
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