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188                                            Solutions to the Exercises

                       We start by observing that for any  > 0 and u ∈ X piec ,wecan find v ∈ X such
                       that
                                                  ku − vk W 1,2 ≤  .
                       It is an easy matter (exactly as above) to show that if
                                                      Z  1
                                                                 2
                                               I (u)=    x (u (x)) dx
                                                            0
                                                       0
                       then we can find a constant K so that
                                               0 ≤ I (v) ≤ I (u)+ K  .

                       Taking the infimum over all elements v ∈ X and u ∈ X piec we get that
                                                    0 ≤ m ≤ K

                       whichisthe desiredresultsince   is arbitrary.
                                                1
                       Exercise 2.2.7. Let u ∈ C ([0, 1]) with u (0) = u (1) = 0. Invoking Poincaré
                       inequality (cf. Theorem 1.47), we can find a constant c> 0 such that

                                                Z          Z
                                                  1          1
                                                               02
                                                    2
                                                   u dx ≤ c   u dx .
                                                 0          0
                                                                            2
                       We hence obtain that m λ =0 if λ is small (more precisely λ ≤ 1/c). Observe
                       that u 0 ≡ 0 satisfies I λ (u 0 )= m λ =0. Furthermore it is the unique solution
                                                                         2
                                                                              2
                       of (P λ ) since, by inspection, it is the only solution (if λ <π )ofthe Euler-
                       Lagrange equation
                                                ½       2
                                                   u + λ u =0
                                                    00
                                                   u (0) = u (1) = 0 .
                       The claim then follows.
                       Exercise 2.2.8. Let
                                          ©      1                             ª
                                   X piec = u ∈ C   ([−1, 1]) : u (−1) = 0,u (1) = 1
                                                 piec
                       and                          ½
                                                       0  if x ∈ [−1, 0]
                                             u (x)=
                                                       x  if x ∈ (0, 1] .
                       It is then obvious to see that
                                        ½       Z                   ¾
                                                  1
                                    inf   I (u)=    f (u (x) ,u (x)) dx  = I (u)= 0 .
                                                             0
                                  u∈X pie c
                                                  −1
                       Note also that the only solution in X piec is u.
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