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124                           Semiconductors

                                     To be specific, let us think about silicon, although most of our remarks
                                   will be qualitatively true of germanium and other semiconductors. Silicon has
                                   the diamond crystalline structure; the four covalent bonds are symmetrically
                                   arranged. All four valence electrons of each atom participate in the covalent
                                   bonds, as we discussed before. But now, having learned band theory, we may
                                   express the same fact in a different way. We may say that all the electrons are
                                   in the valence band at 0 K. There is an energy gap of 1.1 eV above this before
                                   the conduction band starts. Thus, to get an electron in a state in which it can
                                   take up kinetic energy from an electric field and can contribute to an electric
                                   current, we first have to give it a package of at least 1.1 eV of energy. This can
                                   come from thermal excitation, or by photon excitation quite independently of
                                   temperature.
                                     Let us try to work out now the number of electrons likely to be free to
                                   take part in conduction at a temperature T. How can we do this? We have
                                   already solved this problem for the one-dimensional case: eqn (7.51) gives us
                                   the effective number of electrons in a partly filled band; so all we need to do
                                   is to include the Fermi function to take account of finite temperature and to
                                   generalize the whole thing to three dimensions. It can be done, but it is a bit
                                   too complicated. We shall do something else, which is less justifiable on strictly
                                   theoretical grounds, but is physically much more attractive. It is really cheating
                                   because we use only those concepts of band theory that suit us, and instead of
                                   solving the problem honestly, we shall appeal to approximations and analogies.
                                   It is a compromise solution that will lead us to easily manageable formulae.
                                     First of all we shall say that the only electrons and holes that matter are
                                   those near the bottom of the conduction band and the top of the valence band,
                                   respectively. Thus, we may assume that

                                                         k x a,  k y b,  k z c   1,          (8.1)

                                   and we may expand the cosine term in eqn (7.34) to get the energy in the form,

                                                                                   1 2 2
                                                     1 2 2
                                                                    1 2 2
                                      E = E 1 –2A x 1– k a  –2A y 1– k b  –2A z 1– k c   .   (8.2)
                                                     2 x
                                                                    2 y
                                                                                   2 z
                                     Using our definition of effective mass, we can easily show from the above
                                   equation that
                                                        2            2           2
                                                              ∗
                                                                           ∗
                                                 ∗
                                                m =       ,  m =      ,  m =       .         (8.3)
                                                                           z
                                                 x
                                                              y
                                                     2A z a 2    2A y b 2     2A z c 2
                                                             2
                                                                           2
                                                                   2
                                     Substituting the values of A x a , A y b , and A z c from eqn (8.3) back into
                                   eqn (8.2) and condensing the constant terms into a single symbol, E 0 ,wemay
                                   now express the energy as
                                                                      2
                                                              2  k 2 x  k y  k 2 z
                                                     E = E 0 +     +    +     .              (8.4)
                                                             2  m ∗  m ∗  m ∗
                                                                  x    y    z
                                     Taking further E 0 = 0, and assuming that everything is symmetric, that is
                                                               ∗
                                                           ∗
                                                                         ∗
                                                                    ∗
                                                         m = m = m = m ,                     (8.5)
                                                               y
                                                           x
                                                                    z
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